2 Nephi 20:29 |
Isa 10:29 KJV |
They are gone over the passage;
they have taken up their lodging at Geba, Ramath
is afraid; Gibeath of Saul is fled. |
They are gone over the passage:
they have taken up their lodging at Geba; Ramah is afraid; Gibeah of Saul is
fled. |
From the Book of Mormon Critical
Text:
Syr
Rameta’ (cf Syr MT 27:57, Rametha = KJ “Arimathaea”); Targum Ramata’;
28 (Aiath), Josh 19:8, “Ramath”; Josh 13:26, “Ramath-mizpeh”; Judg 15:17, “Ramath-lehi”;
I Sam 1:1; I Chron 27:27. (Book of Mormon Critical Text: A Tool for Scholarly
Reference, 3 vols. [Provo, Utah: Foundation for Ancient Research and Mormon
Studies, 1987], 1:231 n. 828)
From Kevin L. Barney, "Isaiah Interwoven,"
FARMS Review 15, no. 1 (2003): 391-95:
The second example I will mention
occurs at Isaiah 10:29, which reads in part in the KJV as follows: “Ramah is
afraid; Gibeah of Saul is fled.” Second Nephi 20:29 replaces “Ramah” with
“Ramath.” Tvedtnes observes that Ramath “would be the more ancient form of the
name, with the old feminine -ath suffix which, in later (usually even
biblical) Hebrew disappeared in the pausal form of the noun,” being replaced by
the later feminine ending -ah. As an example, Tvedtnes notes that the preceding
verse (Isaiah 10:28) has Aiath, with the -t feminine ending (represented in the
KJV by -ath). Tvedtnes points out that this was written with an -h
ending as Aiah in 1QIsaa, with the -t being added above the line, apparently as
an afterthought. I have seen this same phenomenon Tvedtnes describes,
particularly in place names, which tended to preserve the archaic -t
longer than other words.
Wright has three
objections to the Book of Mormon variant here. First, he notes that the Book of
Mormon Critical Text observes that the Peshitta has rameta and the Targum ramata,
forms that show a -t ending for the place name. Wright rejects this support,
because these versions generally have a form ending in -t where the MT has
Ramah. Wright therefore concludes that this is simply the way those versions
render the underlying text. While Wright is correct, in my view these readings
should not be understood apart from Tvedtnes’s point. To me the Syriac and
Aramaic -t forms are significant because they show what the name would have
been like without the linguistic evolution of the feminine ending experienced
by Hebrew. Consider a different example, in Joshua 19:12: Here we read of a
Levitical city named Daberath at the foot of Mt. Tabor within the tribe of Issachar.
In Joshua 21:28, however, the name of this same city is given in its later
Hebrew form, “Daboreh.” The Aramaic (dabbarta) and Syriac (deboritha) forms of
this name attest to the fact that without the shift to -h endings, the Hebrew
name of the town would have continued with its -t ending as Daberath. Unlike
the case of Daberath, we do not have an attestation of the early unbound (i.e.,
lexical) form Ramath in the Old Testament, but the general linguistic evolution
of Hebrew coupled with the specific support of the Aramaic and Syriac cognates
render it highly probable that the more ancient name of the city was “Ramath”
as the Book of Mormon has it. Wright concedes this, calling it a “linguistic
fact,” but I do believe that the Aramaic and Syriac forms provide a useful
illustration for those who are not students of Hebrew.
Wright’s second
objection is that the construct form of Ramah is sometimes transliterated in
the KJV as “Ramath,” and Joseph Smith could have picked up that spelling from
one of these other passages. Wright’s observation is correct; “Ramath” does
occur in the KJV, and Joseph could have picked up this spelling from one of
those passages. But, while this is certainly possible, is it likely? In order
to have a basis for judgment, the following table sets forth all the forms of
Ramah in the KJV Old Testament of which I am aware:
RAMA
FORMS IN THE OLD TESTAMENT
KJV
Spelling |
Grammatical
Form |
Number
of Occurrences or Citation |
Ramah |
Unbound feminine singular noun |
36
|
Ramath-mizpeh |
Singular Construct |
Joshua 13:26 |
Ramath of the south |
Singular construct |
Joshua 19:18 |
Ramath-lehi |
Singular construct |
Judges 15:17 |
Ramathite |
Gentilic |
1 Chronicles 27:27 |
Ramoth |
Plural |
8 |
Ramoth-gilead |
Plural Construct |
19 |
Ramathaim-zophim |
Dual |
1 Samuel 1 |
Remeth (= Ramoth?) |
(Corrupted?) plural |
Joshua 19:21 |
Ramah means “height” in Hebrew and
was the name for several different cities. Note that its most basic spelling,
Ramah, is also the most common, occurring more than all other forms combined.
The plural, plural construct, gentilic, and dual forms all involve spelling
changes that make them unlikely candidates as a source for the Book of Mormon
Ramath. The singular construct Ramath-mizpeh is unlikely because of the
compound hyphenated form used in the KJV transliteration. This leaves us with
only two possibilities: (1) “Ramath of the south,” and this only because the KJV
translated the second part of the name rather than using the compound
hyphenated form, and (2) “Ramath-lehi,” and this only because of Wright’s
speculation as to whether Joseph might have noticed this one because of the
possible connection between the -lehi element of the compound and the Book of
Mormon’s “Lehi.”
While Wright’s argument is
possible, it strikes me as unlikely. The putative sources for the spelling
change occur in Joshua and Judges, far removed from Isaiah. Would Joseph have
even taken notice of these other spellings? He had not yet studied Hebrew, so
he would have had no way of knowing that “Ramath” was a related form to the
more common “Ramah.” If Joseph were influenced by Ramath-lehi, why did he not
reproduce the full hyphenated form? Also, what is the motive for Joseph to make
the change from Ramah to Ramath? I frankly cannot see one. Further, as Wright
himself notes, the Book of Mormon does use the form Ramah at Ether 15:11, so it
is difficult to see that Joseph could have had a general objection to that
spelling.
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