The first New Testament text I refer
to is John, chapter 1, verse 28, where we find the reading
"Bethabara" in the King James Version. John was baptizing in
Bethabara. This reading does not agree with the views of modern critical
scholars who prefer the reading "Bethany" as found in certain Greek
texts. The question is, which is correct, "Bethabara" or
"Bethany"? I have brought along a copy of Nestle's critical Greek
text and he adopts the reading of "Bethany" and cites the textual
evidence at the bottom of the page. Keep in mind that both readings have some
justification, but which is correct?
Now in the Book of Mormon I cite 1
Nephi, chapter 10, verse 9, where we have this reading:
And my father said he [that is, John
the Baptist] should baptize in Bethabara, beyond Jordan; (1 Nephi 10:9.)
The inspired Book of Mormon, you see,
says that "Bethabara" is the correct reading and that our modern
scholars are wrong in choosing the reading "Bethany." Origen, early
Christian New Testament critic, said that he town down to Palestine and could
not find a Bethany near Jordan. He was aware that even then there were
documents having the reading of "Bethany." but "Bethabara"
is the correct reading according to the Book of Mormon. (Sidney B. Sperry,
"The Book of Mormon and Textual Criticism," Book of Mormon
Institute, December 5, 1959, ed. Dee F. Green [Provo, Utah: Book of Mormon
Institute, 1964], 6)