Giving thanks unto
the Father, which hath made us meet to be partakers of the inheritance of the
saints in light. (Col 1:12)
This verse is evidence for transformative,
not declarative, justification. How so? Firstly, this is said within the
context of our being transposed from being "in Adam" to being
"in Christ," to borrow the language of 1 Cor 15:22:
Who hath delivered us
from the power of darkness, and hath translated us into the kingdom of his dear
Son. (Col 1:13)
Furthermore, the verb translated
"hath made us" (NRS: “enabled you”; NASB: “qualified us”) is ικανοω. BDAG
supports this causative (not declarative merely) understanding:
to
cause to be adequate, make sufficient, qualify (perh.
shading into the sense empower, authorize [PTebt 20, 8]) w. double acc. someone
for someth. 2 Cor 3:6. τινὰ εἴς τι someone
for someth. Col
1:12
(s. καλέω 4).—DELG
s.v. ἵκω. M-M. TW. Spicq.
The only other instance where this verb is
used in the New Testament is also part of the Pauline corpus:
Who also hath made us
able to be (ικανοω) ministers of the new testament; not of the letter, but of
the spirit: for the letter killeth, but the spirit giveth life. (2 Cor 3:6)
Regardless of one’s theology of
justification, being is not simply legally declared to be an able minister of
the new testament, but one is made/transformed into being such. We can further
see this in how ικανοω looks back to ικανος in 2:16 ("to the one an aroma
from death to death, to the other an aroma from life to life. And who is
adequate for these things") and ικανοτης in 3:5 ("Now that we are
sufficient of ourselves to think any thing as of ourselves; but our sufficiency
is of God").
So we see that, in Col 1:12, God must make
or transform us to be worthy of the inheritance of the saints. In case anyone will retort, "but we believe progressive sanctification to be transformational," I ask: In your theology, if someone is legally declared justified but they die with very little, if any progression, in their sanctification, will they die in a saved state? They will answer "yes" as one's eternal destiny is not dependent on their becoming sanctified/holy, but their being declared "righteous."
Further support for this can be seen elsewhere in Colossians. In Col 2:9-15, we read:
This is further strengthened by vv. 12-14 which teaches baptismal regeneration. On this, see:
Water Baptism being a Spiritual Circumcision and Baptism being Salvific in Colossians 2:11-14
Briefly put, in that pericope, Paul states that those "in" (εν) Christ are circumcised with a spiritual circumcision (viz. water baptism [per v. 12]), and paralleling the language used in Rom 6:3-5, we are said to be buried together (συνθαπτομαι) with him "in baptism" (εν τω βαπτισμω), resulting in God freely forgiving (χαριζομαι) us of our trespasses (cf. Rom 6:7, where the Greek uses δικαιοω, "to be justified" as a result of one's water baptism). The only exegetically-sound interpretation is that this pericope teaches baptismal regeneration, not a merely symbolic understanding of water baptism. Of course, it is God, not man, who affects salvation and the forgiveness of sins through water baptism, as the Holy Spirit, through the instrumentality of baptism, cleanses us from sins and makes us into a new creature.
For a refutation of imputed righteousness, see:
Response to a Recent Attempt to Defend Imputed Righteousness
For more on transformative justification, see:
Refuting Christina Darlington on the Nature of "Justification" (also has a discussion of -οω verbs, of which ικανοω is one of)