Some opponents of Reformed theology have pointed out that –οω verbs describe the reality of something, but a declaration based on imputation (e.g., see my Does LDS Theology Confuse the Relationship Between Justification and Sanctification?). Philip Schaff, himself a Protestant and proponent of forensic justification, wrote the following in his 8-volume history of Christianity:
Modern exegesis has justified this [declarative] view of δικαιόω and δικαίωσις, according to Hellenistic usage, although etymologically the verb may mean to make just, i.e., to sanctify, in accordance with verbs in όω (e.g. δηλόω φανερόω, τυφλόω (i.to make manifest, etc.) (History of the Christian Church, 7:104 n. 139)
This has been proven rather problematic for many. Indeed, in an attempt to get around this linguistic issue, Leon Morris, in a very good work defending that propitiation, not expiation merely, is biblical (contra C.H. Dodd in The Bible and the Greeks [1935] and others), wrote the following which is fraught with error:
It is necessary to say a word or two more about the verb δικαιοω which in the New Testament is translated ‘to justify’ but which has been understood in more ways than one. Since verbs in –οω commonly express a causative idea it is urged by some that δικαιοω must mean ‘to make righteous’. But in the first place verbs of this class denoting moral qualities do not have the causative meaning (e.g. αξιοω means ‘to deem worthy’ not ‘to make worthy’ and similarly with ομοιοω, οσιοω, etc.) (Leon Morris, The Apostolic Preaching of the Cross [3d ed.; Grand Rapids, Mich.: Eerdmans, 1965], 252)
The problem with Morris’ analysis is that when –οω verbs are used, they are used to describe the intrinsic reality of the person/thing being discussed (e.g, a blind person would be described using the verb τυφλόω as they are not merely declared to be blind—they are in reality blind). The same for other verbs. Indeed, αξιοω supports this, too.
Bring forth therefore fruits meet for repentance.
The Greek of this text reads:
ποιήσατε οὖν καρπὸν ἄξιον τῆς μετανοίας.
Literally, John is commanding the people “to do” (ποιεω) works that are “worthy” of repentance. The Greek adjective translated as “worthy” is αξιος. In New Testament soteriological contexts, it is always used to describe the reality of someone or something; it is not a mere legal declaration; in other words, something is counted/considered worthy because they/it are intrinsically worthy. We can see this in the Gospel of Matthew itself:
Nor scrip for your journey, neither shoes, nor yet staves: for the workman is worthy (αξιος) of his meat. And into whateoever city or town ye shall enter, enquire who it is worthy (αξιος); and there abide till ye go thence . . .And if the house be worthy (αξιος), let your peace come upon it: but if it be not worthy, let your peace return to you. (Matt 10:10-11, 13)
He that loveth father or mother more than me is not worthy (αξιος) of me: and he that loveth son or daughter more than me is not worthy of me. And he that taketh not his cross, and followeth after me, is not worthy (αξιος) of me. (Matt 10:37-38)
Then saith he to his servants, The wedding is ready, but they which were bidden were not worthy (αξιος). (Matt 22:8)
We can also see this in the verb form of this adjective (αξιοω) and its usage in the New Testament. Speaking of Christ and his intrinsic (not imputed nor declarative merely) worthiness, we read the following:
For this man was counted worthy (αξιοω) of more glory than Moses, inasmuch as he who hath builded the house hath more honour than the house. (Heb 3:3)
The same applies for instances where δικαιοω are used in a declarative sense--a recognition of their being righteous, not a declaration based on imputation. We can see this in many instances, including 1 Tim 3:16. Speaking of Christ and His glorious resurrection, the apostle Paul wrote:
Without any doubt, the mystery of our religion is great: He was revealed in flesh, vindicated in spirit, seen by angels, proclaimed among Gentiles, believed in throughout the world, taken up in glory (NRSV)
The underlining Greek translated as “vindicated” is ἐδικαιώθη, the indicative aorist passive of the verb δικαιοω. While one can (correctly) argue that δικαιοω has the meaning of "vindicated," it also shows that the verb also has a transformative sense too, by the mere fact that Christ in His resurrection was literally transformed from a state of death to a state of life.
John Calvin attempted (rather lamely) in his commentary on the New Testament to get around this verse and its implications:
Such a "response" is mirrored by the following from Morris:
We can see how desperate Calvin is to force forensic justification into (1) this verse and (2) the cognate terms for δικαιοω.
For a response to the doctrine of imputation, something which underlies the works of Morris, Calvin, et al., see, for e.g.:
Response to a Recent Attempt to Defend Imputed Righteousness
For a response to the underlying theological presuppositions of the Reformed theology of Morris et al., see:
An Examination and Critique of the Theological Presuppositions Underlying Reformed Theology
John Calvin attempted (rather lamely) in his commentary on the New Testament to get around this verse and its implications:
Justified in the Spirit. As the Son of God "emptied himself," (Php 2:7), by taking upon him our flesh, so there was displayed in him a spiritual power which testified that he is God. This passage has received various interpretations; but, for my own part, satisfied with having explained the Apostle’s real meaning, as far as I understand it, I shall add nothing more. First, justification here denotes an acknowledgment of divine power; as in Ps 19:9 where it is said, that
"the judgments of God are justified,"
that is, are wonderfully and absolutely perfect; and in Ps 51:4, that "God is justified," meaning that the praise of his justice is illustriously displayed. So also, (Mt 11:19, and Lu 7:35,), when Christ says, that
"Wisdom hath been justified by her children,"
he means that they have given honor unto her; and when Luke (Lu 7:29) relates that the publicans "justified God," he means that they acknowledged, with due reverence and gratitude, the grace of God which they beheld in Christ. What we read here has, therefore, the same meaning as if Paul had said, that he who appeared clothed with human flesh was, at the same time, declared to be the Son of God, so that the weakness of the flesh made no diminution of his glory.
Under the word Spirit, he includes everything in Christ that was divine and superior to man; and he does so for two reasons: First, because he had been humbled in "the flesh," the Apostle now, by exhibiting the illustration of his glory, contrasts "the Spirit" with "the flesh." Secondly, that glory, worthy of the only-begotten Son of God, which John affirms to have been seen in Christ, (Joh 1:14), did not consist in outward display, or in earthly splendor, but was almost wholly spiritual. The same form of expression is used by him, (Ro 1:3-4),
"Who was made of the seed of David according to the flesh, and declared by the power of the Spirit to be the Son of God;"
but with this difference, that in that passage he mentions one kind of manifestation, namely, the resurrection.
Such a "response" is mirrored by the following from Morris:
When we turn to those passages where the verb ‘to justify’ occurs, there can be no doubt that the meaning is to declare righteous rather than to make righteous. Thus we find a direction that the judges ‘shall justify the righteous’ or ‘to acquit.’ The same usage is seen in ‘I will not justify the wicked’ (Ex. 23:7), and in the woe to them that ‘justify the wicked for reward’ (Is 5:23). (Morris, Apostolic Preaching of the Cross, 259)
We can see how desperate Calvin is to force forensic justification into (1) this verse and (2) the cognate terms for δικαιοω.
Firstly, texts such as Psa 19:9 are not soteriological in nature.
Secondly, notice that Psa 19:9 and other like-verses actually refute Calvin's soteriology. How? In Reformed theology, justification is a legal declaration wherein one is declared "justified" or "righteous" based, not on an intrinsic or infused righteousness, but an imputed/alien righteousness--that is, the person is not actually righteous/justified, whence Luther's "simul iustus et peccator" (sinful and just at the same moment). However, God's judgments are not merely "declared" righteous, they truly are righteous. Indeed, this leads to a problem that permeates much of Protestantism--an "either-or" fallacy; just as Protestants are "either-or" with respect to faith and works, they are "either-or" with respect to the meaning of δικαι-terms--it is either a legal declaration or something infused or intrinsic within the person (and the latter is always precluded)--it can be both, depending on the context. Indeed, even in contexts in both the OT and NT where the term is used in a legal context, it never means anything near the legal fiction meaning Protestant theology calls for (see this post discussing Lev 17:3-4 and Deut 25:1). It should be enough, to consider Deut 25:13-16 to see how the Hebrew and Greek terms צֶדֶק and δικαιος are to be interpreted in v. 1 of the same chapter:
Thou shalt not have in thy bag divers weights, a great and a small. Thou shalt no have in thine house divers measures; a great and a small. But thou shalt have a perfect and just (Heb: צֶדֶק; LXX: δικαιος) measure shalt thou have: that thy days may be lengthened in the land which the Lord thy God giveth thee. For all that do such things, and all that do unrighteousness, are an abomination unto the Lord thy God.
One will be struck on how צֶדֶק is used in this pericope; it is used to denote the intrinsic reality of the weights and measures one is using and one’s behaviour vis-à-vis one’s use thereof; there is no mere labelling the weights and measures which do not reflect their reality (the very concept of imputation which is read into [via eisegesis] of v. 1). Further, compare with the following commentary from Chris VanLandingham:
Deuteronomy 25:1—ἐὰν δὲ γένηται ἀντιλογία ἀνὰ μέσον ἀνθρώπων καὶ προσέλθωσιν εἰς κρίσιν καὶ κρίνωσιν καὶ δικαιώσωσιν τὸν δίκαιον καὶ καταγνῶσιν τοῦ ἀσεβοῦς: “Now if there is a dispute between men and they enter into litigation and (the judges) rule and they give justice to the righteous and pass sentence on the impious.” The sense is difficult to determine. It could mean “to declare righteous and righteous one,” but besides being redundant, the righteous do not go to court to get a simple declaration, they go to seek and get justice (flogging, in this text). On the other hand, “to find righteous” works well because it stands nicely antithetic to καταγιγνωσκω. The emphasis, nevertheless, focuses on the action that the judges impose not, not on what they find. Chris VanLandingham, Judgment and Justification in Early Judaism and the Apostle Paul [Peabody, Mass.: Hendrickson Publishers, 2006], 257)
Thirdly, with respect to Matt 11:19 and its parallel in Luke 7:35, it is true that δικαιοω is used in a sense of "vindication." However, it is being used as a metaphor and, furthermore, is not being used in a soteriological context. It is only because the context of these verses does not concern themselves with justification and related issues. Something similar happens in English--if you refer to your wife as "the apple of my eye," such clearly uses "apple" in a metaphorical sense, not the "normative" sense of "apple"--to claim otherwise would result in utter inanity! Obviously, "wisdom" cannot be justified in a soteriological sense, as it is a virtue, so "justified" changes from its "normative" meaning to be accommodated to the metaphorical context it is used in.
As for 1 Tim 3:16 itself, such proves too much, as it shows that δικαιοω has, not just a legal/declarative meaning, but also a transformative meaning. As previously mentioned, the underlining Greek translated as “vindicated” is ἐδικαιώθη, the indicative aorist passive of the verb δικαιοω. While one can (correctly) argue that δικαιοω has the meaning of "vindicated," it also shows that the verb also have a transformative sense too, by the mere fact that Christ in His resurrection was literally transformed from a state of death to a state of life.
With respect to other instances of δικαι-words, consider the following from a leading scholar of Pauline New Testament texts and theology whose work has refuted the concept Paul taught forensic justification:
As we have seen, the arguments of Leon Morris et al on -οω verbs and δικαιοω fail when examined carefully.With respect to other instances of δικαι-words, consider the following from a leading scholar of Pauline New Testament texts and theology whose work has refuted the concept Paul taught forensic justification:
I contend that even if on occasion δικαι- terms are forensic, in Paul at least, the terms do not refer to the Last Judgment. Paul does not, in fact, use δικαι- terms (in conjunction with “faith”), however, does not evoke any judgment that determine one’s eternal destiny. The issue does not need to be whether the terms (in conjunction with “faith" are forensic, but whether they refer specifically to the Last Judgment. Paul’s use of the δικαι- terms to embrace both the notions of (1) forgiveness, cleansing, and purification of past sins and (2) an emancipation from sin as a ruler over humanity. The various δικαι- terms all refer to the same quality or effect of Jesus’ death on the believer. In other words, despite their grammatical distinctions, δικαιοσυνη, δικαιος, δικαωσις, and even δικαιοω all have the same sense; therefore, the best rendering of δικαιοσυνη is “righteousness,” of δικαιος, “righteous,” and of δικαιοω, “make righteous.” (Chris VanLandingham, Judgment and Justification in Early Judaism and the Apostle Paul, 245-46; emphasis added; see the entire chapter, Chapter 4: “Justification by Faith”—A Mistranslated Phrase and Misunderstood Concept [pp. 242-332] for a full-length refutation of the historical Protestant understanding of “justification”).
Commenting on a long-standing “proof-text” for sola fide, Rom 3:21-26, VanLandingham writes that:
The verb δικαιοω can be causative, because aside from the fact that the –οω verbs normally are (as φανερω in 3:21), the verb most often renders the causative hip’il of צדק in the Septuagint. In this case, it would mean “to make δικαιος.” Admittedly, δικαιοω does not often have this sense; however, as previously stated, this rendering fits very well in Ps 72:13 (LXX); Luke 18:14; Rom4:5; 1 Cor 6:11; and Jas 2:21, 24, 25, and with a nearly synonymous meaning in T. Sim. 6:1; Sir 26:29; and Acts 13:38-39. The causative sense also works well; but considering that Paul uses the verb synonymously with the δικαι- terms (δικαιος, δικαιοσυνη) that occur in the proof-texts of Hab 2:4 and Gen 15:6, it makes the most sense that here δικαιοω means “to make δικαιος.” Paul uses the verb as a convenient way to indicate the transferal of believers from a state of unrighteousness to the state of righteousness. This transferal, of course, is precisely what Paul says in Rom 5:19: “By means of obedience of the one, the many will be made righteous” (δίκαιοι κατασταθήσονται) (Ibid., 320-31)
Such a view of the δικαι- word group (and its Hebrew equivalent, the צדק – word group) can be found all throughout the Hebrew OT and the LXX and Greek NT. Consider, for example, Psa 73:13 (LXX 72:13 [referenced above by VanLandingham]):
Verily I have cleansed (δικαιοω) my heart in vain, and washed my hands in innocency.
Similarly, the Hebrew term “to justify” (צדק), which is the word usually translated with δικαιοω in the LXX, can also mean “purify”:
And he said unto me, Unto two thousand and three hundred days; then shall the sanctuary be cleansed (צדק).
As Derek Flood, in his book, Healing the Gospel: A Radical Vision for Grace, Justice, and the Cross (Eugene, Oreg.: Cascade Books, 2012), pp. 103-104 notes:
Even where dikaioo appears to mean “declare righteous” linguistically in Romans, I would argue that it nevertheless always includes the restorative sense of God making-righteous the unrighteous in Paul’s thought. We can see this connection explicitly drawn out in Romans 5 where Paul juxtaposes two parallel formulations:
Consequently, just as one trespass resulted in condemnation for all people, so also one righteous act resulted in justification (dikaoisis) and life for all people. (v.18)
For just as through the disobedience of the one man the many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the one man the many will be made righteous. (v. 19)
Here we can see that, whatever Paul understands dikaioo to mean, he directly connotes that meaning with our being “made righteous” in this parallel verse. The NET renders the Greek dikaiosin zoes (literally “the making right of/from life”) as “righteousness leading to life” (v. 18). Justification is an act of God that results in life because it “makes righteous.”
When Paul says that “God justifies the ungodly,” he is not proposing [that] God is a participant in the kind of legal fiction that the Old Testament expressly condemns [Isa 5:23; Exo 23:7]. Indeed, one of Pau’s central points in Romans is to demonstrate that God was not unjust in showing mercy to sinners rather than punishing them. The way that God demonstrates justice is not by acquitting the unrighteous, but by making them good. It is a gospel of God’s act of restorative justice in us. God’s actions are life-giving and transforming.
For a response to the doctrine of imputation, something which underlies the works of Morris, Calvin, et al., see, for e.g.:
Response to a Recent Attempt to Defend Imputed Righteousness
For a response to the underlying theological presuppositions of the Reformed theology of Morris et al., see:
An Examination and Critique of the Theological Presuppositions Underlying Reformed Theology
