Although rare, I have seen some critics of the Book of Mormon cite 2 Nephi 29:21 being an example of where the Book of Mormon contains a KJV translation error in its rendition of Isaiah 29:21. The KJV of Isa 29:21 reads:
That make a man an offender for a word, and lay a snare for him that reproveth in the gate, and turn aside the just for a thing of nought.
The Book of Mormon, as part of a Midrash-like expansion of Isa 29, has the phrase, "offender for a word" in 2 Nephi 27:32:
And they that make a man an offender for a word, and lay a snare for him that reproveth in the gate, and turn aside the just for a thing of naught.
Modern translations render the Hebrew phrase מַחֲטִיאֵי אָדָם בְּדָבָר וְלַמּוֹכִיחַ "that make a man an offender for a word" as "those who cause a person to lose a lawsuit" (NRSV) or "who cause men to lose their lawsuits" (1985 JPS Tanakh) and the like, showing that the phrase is set within a judicial context.
However, as with many purported examples, there is no issue. Why? Both the KJV (and BOM) translation of this phrase, as well as modern English renditions thereof, are forensic/legal in nature. The term "offender" in Webster's 1828 dictionary carries such a forensic meaning:
OFFEND'ER, n. One that offends; one that violates any law, divine or human; a criminal; a trespasser; a transgressor; one that does an injury. The man who robs, steals, or commits an assault, is an offender.
The KJV and the Book of Mormon's translation of this phrase in Isaiah is not problematic at all for the historicity of the Book of Mormon.
I think some of the confusion stems from the common LDS misunderstanding of this phrase (playing word games with innocent/unsuspecting people being one common interpretation I have encountered), but neither Isa 29 or 2 Nephi 27, in their context, requires such a meaning (perhaps informed, in part, due to linguistic drift vis-a-vis the semantic domain of "offender").
