In
the three places in John (chs. 3:22, 26; 4:1, 2) in which it is stated that
Jesus baptized or had baptisms performed, there seems to be a contradiction. First
it is stated that Jesus baptized; in the second, this information is brought to
John the Baptizer; the third account appears to explain the other two, in that
Jesus did not Himself perform the water baptism but caused His disciples to do
so. But may we not rightly assume that Jesus, Who, according to John 4:1, made
and baptized more disciples than John (thus uniting baptism with discipleship),
first of all Himself baptized His first disciples (so far as they had not
already been baptized by John), and then commissioned them to baptize in His
Name? Thus the apparent contradiction would be resolved and at the same time an
answer given to the general question, Were all the twelve disciples baptized? If
Jesus as a general practice baptized or caused to be baptized those whom He
made disciples, could He permit any of the twelve to be excepted from this
rule? It is unthinkable. (Johannes Warns, Baptism: Studies in the Original
Christian Baptism: Its History and Conflicts Its elation to a State or National
Church and its Significance for the Present Time [2d ed.; trans. H. G.
Lang; 1922], 21 n. 1)
Further Reading:
