The question which must be considered is: Is James'
use of Amos 9:11-12 contrary to its intended meaning specifically because his
use is based upon a faulty translation? James' argument is that the
experiential evidence may be accepted because it is confirmed by scripture.
The inclusion of the Gentiles into God's kingdom is not something new, but
rather something which God had not only planned long before but which He had
also made known long ago through His prophets. James had just related how God
had desired "to take a Gentile people for His name," (verse 14), and
it was most likely the phrase "for His name" which "was the
trigger thought that brought to the mind of James the words of Amos." As
has been suggested, the theme of Gentile inclusion is intrinsic in both the
Hebrew and the Greek, and while the LXX is surely more forceful to this point
(did James choose it for this reason, or was this simply the version he
remembered?), "even our Massoretic Hebrew could have served the present
purpose admirably, since it predicted that the 'tabernacle of David,' i.e. the
church of the Messiah, would gain possession of all the nations which are
called by name [of the God of Israel]." (David M. King, “The Use of Amos 9:11-12 in Acts 15:16-18,” Ashland Theological Journal 21, no. 1 [1989]:
12, emphasis in bold added)
To Support this Blog:
Email for Amazon Gift card: ScripturalMormonism@gmail.com
Email for Logos.com Gift Card: IrishLDS87@gmail.com
