Monday, March 10, 2025

An Example of a Scholar Using "Immaculate Conception" instead of "Virginal Conception"

It is common for people to innocently (though incorrectly) use the phrase “immaculate conception” to refer to the virginal conception of Jesus (they are two different things). While not the same, a scholar used “immaculate conception” to refer to the virginal conception of Mary in some manuscripts of the Protoevangelium of James:

 

ii.         Immaculate Conception

 

Another aspect of Mary’s birth gave rise to the doctrine known as the Immaculate Conception. This may be seen most vividly in PJ. The angel tells Anna she will conceive but at 4.4 when an angel speaks to the long-absent Joachim he tells him that his wife is already pregnant, implying a miraculous conception. At 4.9 too the perfect tense (indicating a present reality) is found, although some manuscripts, conscious of the difficulty, both here and at 4.4 have substituted a future tense. Defenders of the future tense, improbably, read Joachim’s ‘resting’ at home after his return as a euphemism that is intended to say that that is when the conception occurred. However, the perfect tense is probably to be preferred in both verses and may be used to support the teaching that Anna’s conception of Mary was indeed without macula. That Anna conceived without sexual intercourse is implied when Joachim sees in the priest’s frontlet that he has not sinned (PJ 5.1). (J. K. Elliot, “Christian Apocrypha and the Developing Role of Mary,” in The Oxford Handbook of Early Christian Apocrypha, ed. Andrew Gregory and Christopher Tuckett [Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2015], 285)

 

Further Reading:

 

Lily C. Vyong on the Miraculous Conception of Mary in Chapter 4 of the Protoevangelium of James

 

 

To Support this Blog:

 

Patreon

Paypal

Venmo

Amazon Wishlist

Email for Amazon Gift card: ScripturalMormonism@gmail.com

Email for Logos.com Gift Card: IrishLDS87@gmail.com

Blog Archive